Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 00:40
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
King Charles praised for 'faultless' firing technique at Larkhill - BBC
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Mets place Mark Vientos on 10-day IL, option Max Kranick in flurry of roster moves - SNY
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.